Nursing Elites

1. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

2. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV fluids to a client. The professional notes sparks when plugging in the IV pump. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Label the pump with a defective equipment sticker.
• B. Unplug the pump.
• C. Obtain a replacement pump.
• D. Notify the maintenance department to fix the pump.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Unplugging the pump is the correct initial action in this situation to prevent any potential fire hazards. Sparks when plugging in the IV pump indicate an electrical issue that can lead to a fire. By immediately unplugging the pump, the healthcare professional ensures the safety of the client and prevents any further risks. Labeling the pump with a defective equipment sticker (Choice A) is not the priority as the immediate concern is safety. Obtaining a replacement pump (Choice C) can be considered after addressing the safety issue. Notifying the maintenance department (Choice D) is important but should follow the immediate action of unplugging the pump to mitigate the risk.

4. A client is experiencing dyspnea and fatigue after completing morning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Schedule rest periods during morning care.
• B. Discontinue morning care for 2 days.
• C. Perform all care as quickly as possible.
• D. Ask a family member to come in to bathe the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Scheduling rest periods during morning care is essential for managing dyspnea and fatigue in the client. This approach allows the client to pace themselves and catch their breath, promoting comfort and reducing symptoms. It is crucial to provide breaks to prevent overwhelming the client and exacerbating their symptoms. Discontinuing morning care for 2 days (choice B) is not a suitable solution as it does not address the underlying issue and may lead to neglect of essential care. Performing all care as quickly as possible (choice C) can worsen the client's symptoms and compromise their well-being by increasing stress and exertion. Asking a family member to bathe the client (choice D) does not address the need for rest periods during care and may not be feasible or appropriate in all situations.

5. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?

• A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
• B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
• C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
• D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.

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