Nursing Elites

1. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

2. A client expresses that, based on religious values and mandates, a blood transfusion is not an acceptable treatment option. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “I believe in this case you should make an exception and accept the blood transfusion.”
• B. “I know your family would approve of your decision to have a blood transfusion.”
• C. “Why does your religion mandate that you cannot receive any blood transfusions?”
• D. “Let’s discuss the necessity for a blood transfusion with your religious and spiritual leaders and come to a reasonable solution.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to involve the client's religious and spiritual leaders in the discussion to find a solution that respects both the client's values and medical needs. Option A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's beliefs. Option B assumes the family's opinion over the client's. Option C is inappropriate as it questions the client's religious beliefs rather than addressing the concern respectfully.

3. A healthcare professional is planning weight loss strategies for a group of clients who are obese. Which of the following actions by the professional will improve the clients' commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss?

• A. Help the clients increase their self-motivation
• B. Recommend gradual dietary changes tailored to the clients' preferences
• C. Emphasize the importance of both exercise and dietary changes
• D. Encourage setting both short-term and long-term goals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helping the clients increase their self-motivation is crucial for long-term weight loss success. By empowering clients to find their internal drive to make healthy choices, they are more likely to stay committed to their goals. Choice B is incorrect because recommending a strict diet plan immediately may not consider the clients' individual preferences and needs, leading to potential disengagement. Choice C is incorrect as focusing solely on exercise without addressing dietary changes does not provide a comprehensive approach to weight loss. Choice D is incorrect because setting only short-term goals may not foster sustained progress towards achieving a healthier weight.

4. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal mass and weakness. In neuroblastoma, the most common presenting signs are related to the mass effect of the tumor, leading to an abdominal mass and symptoms of weakness. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more indicative of other conditions like neurofibromatosis or brain tumors. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions such as brain tumors or increased intracranial pressure, but they are not specific to neuroblastoma.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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