Nursing Elites

1. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

2. While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Weigh the client daily.
• D. Change the TPN bag every 24 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action is to change the TPN bag every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (Choice B) may increase the risk of contamination. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN administration. Weighing the client daily (Choice C) is essential for monitoring fluid status but is not directly related to TPN administration.

3. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

4. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?

• A. A 16-year-old client who is married
• B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
• C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
• D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.

5. A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be:

• A. Absent
• B. Hyperactive
• C. Normal
• D. Hypoactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In paralytic ileus, bowel sounds are typically absent or significantly reduced due to decreased motility of the intestines. This absence of bowel sounds is a key characteristic used in diagnosing paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not expected in this condition as there is a lack of normal peristalsis. Normal bowel sounds would not be present in paralytic ileus, and hypoactive bowel sounds, which indicate decreased bowel motility, are more commonly associated with conditions like postoperative ileus or constipation, rather than paralytic ileus.

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