Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

2. A client's readiness to learn about insulin administration is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. ''I can concentrate best in the morning.''
• B. ''It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.''
• C. ''I'm wondering why I need to learn this.''
• D. ''You will have to talk to my wife about this.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client's statement about the best time to concentrate indicates readiness for learning. This statement shows an awareness and interest in learning. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates a barrier to learning due to not having glasses. Choice C is incorrect as it shows a lack of understanding or motivation for learning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a lack of personal involvement or responsibility in the learning process since the client is deflecting the responsibility to someone else.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 0.5 ml
• B. 1 ml
• C. 1.5 ml
• D. 2 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Cloudy urine
• B. Burning sensation during urination
• C. Foul-smelling urine
• D. Blood in the urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.

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