Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

2. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
• B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
• C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
• D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

3. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

4. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breathing sounds
• B. Wheezing
• C. Crackles
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

5. A healthcare professional is screening several clients at a neighborhood health fair. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for referral for further care?

• A. HR 105/min
• B. BMI 25 kg/m²
• C. BP 148/92
• D. Glucose 45 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Glucose 45 mg/dL.' Glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention to prevent complications like seizures, loss of consciousness, and even coma. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious adverse outcomes if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and C do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions and can be managed as part of routine care, unlike hypoglycemia which demands urgent intervention.

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