a client is scheduled for an ivp intravenous pyelogram which of the following data from the clients history indicate a potential hazard for this test
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

2. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.

4. When teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of newly licensed nurses, what should the charge nurse instruct as the initial response in CPR?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response in CPR is to confirm unresponsiveness. This step is crucial to ensure that the person actually needs CPR before proceeding with further actions. Checking for unresponsiveness is essential to determine if the individual is in need of immediate assistance. Checking for a pulse or beginning chest compressions without confirming unresponsiveness could waste valuable time and potentially harm the individual. Calling for emergency help is important, but it should follow the confirmation of unresponsiveness to ensure timely activation of emergency services.

5. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes in the plan of care, the nurse should obtain current client data to compare with these outcomes. This step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because determining the realism of expected outcomes comes after assessing current client data. Choice C is incorrect as modifying nursing interventions should be based on the data comparison rather than done immediately after reviewing expected outcomes. Choice D is also incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step in evaluating care effectiveness.

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