a client is scheduled for an ivp intravenous pyelogram which of the following data from the clients history indicate a potential hazard for this test
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

2. When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

4. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

5. A client is admitted with acute pyelonephritis. Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flank pain is a classic symptom of acute pyelonephritis, which is a bacterial infection of the kidney. It occurs due to inflammation and irritation of the renal capsule, leading to pain in the flank region. Pedal edema (swelling in the feet and ankles) is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not typically seen in acute pyelonephritis. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a systemic symptom that may occur with severe infections but is not a specific hallmark of pyelonephritis. Weight gain is also not a typical symptom of acute pyelonephritis; instead, patients may experience weight loss due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of infection.

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