Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is being taught by a nurse and their family how to care for the tracheostomy at home. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
• B. Clean the tracheostomy with alcohol.
• C. Replace the tracheostomy tube every week.
• D. Cover the tracheostomy with a wet cloth when sleeping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using tracheostomy covers when outdoors is essential to protect the tracheostomy from dust and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Tracheostomy covers help maintain cleanliness and prevent foreign particles from entering the stoma. Choice B is incorrect because cleaning the tracheostomy with alcohol can be too harsh and drying for the skin surrounding the stoma, leading to skin irritation. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes are typically replaced only when clinically indicated or as per the healthcare provider's instructions, not routinely every week, to prevent unnecessary risks and complications. Choice D is incorrect as covering the tracheostomy with a wet cloth when sleeping can create a moist environment ideal for bacterial growth, increasing the risk of infection and skin breakdown. It is important to keep the tracheostomy site clean, dry, and protected to maintain optimal hygiene and prevent complications.

3. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints
• B. Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed
• C. Secure the restraints to the bed frame
• D. Use a quick-release knot to tie the restraints

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a new prescription for wrist restraints is to pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and injury. Tying the restraints to the side rails of the bed (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to potential harm for the client. Similarly, securing the restraints to the bed frame (Choice C) is not appropriate as it can restrict the client's movement and cause discomfort. Using a quick-release knot to tie the restraints (Choice D) is also incorrect as it may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints in ensuring client safety.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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