HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
- A. Reflex incontinence
- B. Allergic to shellfish
- C. Claustrophobia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
- B. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
- C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position for medication administration
- D. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administering it
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to gently shake the container of liquid medication before administration. Shaking the container ensures proper mixing of the medication, which is important to maintain uniformity of the dose. Transferring the medication to a medicine cup (choice B) may not be necessary for a small volume like 0.5 mL. Placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position (choice C) is not directly related to administering liquid medication orally. Verifying the dosage by measuring the liquid (choice D) is important but does not address the specific action needed to prepare the medication for administration.
3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should take my pulse before taking the medication.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I should avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
- D. I should eat foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Eating foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia when taken with digoxin, indicating a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that demonstrate understanding of digoxin therapy. Taking the pulse, maintaining a consistent dosing schedule, and avoiding antacids to prevent interactions with digoxin are all appropriate client responses.
5. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
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