Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:

• A. Solutes in the urine
• B. Bacteria in the urine
• C. pH level of the urine
• D. Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.

2. A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery.
• B. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel.
• C. Focus on completing tasks in the order they are assigned.
• D. Avoid using a checklist for daily tasks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.

3. During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Murmur
• C. S1 and S2
• D. Bruit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.

4. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

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