Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:

• A. Solutes in the urine
• B. Bacteria in the urine
• C. pH level of the urine
• D. Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.

2. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

3. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

• A. 13 ml/hour
• B. 63 ml/hour
• C. 80 ml/hour
• D. 125 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.

4. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Apple
• C. Rice
• D. Banana

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

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