Nursing Elites

1. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
• B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
• C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
• D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

3. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

4. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High protein, high calorie
• B. High carbohydrate, low fat
• C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
• D. Fluid restricted, bland

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.

5. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

• A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
• B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
• C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
• D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

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