Nursing Elites

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
• B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
• C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
• D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?

• A. Dorsal gluteal muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Rectus femoris muscle
• D. Deltoid muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?

• A. 12.5
• B. 5
• C. 10
• D. 20

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.

5. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?

• A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
• B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
• C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
• D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.

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