following a gunshot wound an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 gramsdl 40 mmoll si the nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emer
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

3. A continuous infusion of nitroglycerin is prescribed for an adult male admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The client is experiencing active chest pain that he describes as 8 out of 10. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuously monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this case because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure allows the nurse to assess the client's response to the medication and detect any signs of hypotension promptly. This intervention is essential to ensure the effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy and prevent potential complications. Administering the infusion via an infusion pump is important for accurate dosing but not the most critical at this moment. Obtaining the current serum potassium level is important but not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing active chest pain. Teaching guided imagery may be beneficial for pain management, but in this scenario, monitoring blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential side effects of nitroglycerin.

4. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.

5. A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.

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