Nursing Elites

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

3. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

4. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?

• A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
• B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
• C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
• D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.

5. A young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tells the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was his age and that life with a schizophrenic mother was difficult indeed. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Ask the client if he is worried about becoming schizophrenic at the age his mother was diagnosed.
• B. Encourage the client to seek genetic counseling to determine his risk for mental illness.
• C. Inform the client that his mother’s schizophrenia has affected his psychological development.
• D. Tell the client that mental illness has a familial predisposition so he should see a psychiatrist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic counseling can help assess risk and provide guidance for the client’s concerns about potential hereditary conditions.

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