Nursing Elites

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

3. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?

• A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
• B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
• C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
• D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.

4. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

5. Which situation is a violation of client confidentiality, as described in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

• A. A sign-in sheet kept at the front desk listing clients' last names and the time of their arrival
• B. A nurse's handwritten notes from a telephone report discarded in the office wastebasket
• C. A computer monitor screen located at the nurse's station in a high-traffic area
• D. Privileged Health Information (PHI) given to an ambulance driver for the transfer of a client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is a violation of client confidentiality as it exposes patient information to unauthorized individuals due to its location in a high-traffic area. HIPAA regulations require that electronic protected health information (ePHI) be safeguarded against unauthorized access, making the situation described in choice C a violation. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the exposure of patient information to unauthorized individuals. While choices A and B may pose some risks, they are not as severe as the direct exposure described in choice C. Choice D involves sharing information with an ambulance driver for a legitimate purpose, which does not violate HIPAA if done securely and in compliance with regulations.

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