Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has bilateral below-the-knee amputations and weak, thread pedal pulses. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document that an accurate oxygen saturation reading cannot be obtained
• B. Elevate the client's hands for five minutes prior to obtaining a reading from the finger
• C. Increase the oxygen based on the client's breathing patterns and lung sounds
• D. Place the oximeter clip on the earlobe to obtain the oxygen saturation reading

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the oximeter clip on the earlobe is appropriate for clients with poor peripheral circulation, such as those with weak and thread pedal pulses due to bilateral below-the-knee amputations. This placement can provide a more accurate reading of oxygen saturation in such clients. Choice A is incorrect because alternative methods, such as earlobe placement, can be used to obtain accurate readings. Choice B is unnecessary and not related to obtaining an accurate oxygen saturation reading. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oxygen without assessing the oxygen saturation level first can be detrimental and is not based on evidence-based practice.

2. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Review the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors
• B. Check urinary catheter for obstruction
• C. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
• D. Give PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client in the intensive care unit is mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and is restless, the priority action is to check the urinary catheter for obstruction. Restlessness in this context could be due to a blocked catheter causing discomfort or urinary retention, which needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Reviewing the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors can be important but is not the priority in this scenario. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds is also important in a ventilated client but addressing the potential immediate issue of a blocked catheter takes precedence. Giving a PRN dose of lorazepam should not be the first action without addressing the underlying cause of restlessness.

3. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

4. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

5. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

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