Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

2. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

• A. Ask the most experienced UAP on the team to partner with the newly hired UAP.
• B. Evaluate the newly hired UAP’s level of competency by observing the UAP deliver care.
• C. Review the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the person who hired the UAP.
• D. Assign the newly hired UAP to clients who require the least complex level of care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

3. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Review the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors
• B. Check urinary catheter for obstruction
• C. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
• D. Give PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client in the intensive care unit is mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and is restless, the priority action is to check the urinary catheter for obstruction. Restlessness in this context could be due to a blocked catheter causing discomfort or urinary retention, which needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Reviewing the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors can be important but is not the priority in this scenario. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds is also important in a ventilated client but addressing the potential immediate issue of a blocked catheter takes precedence. Giving a PRN dose of lorazepam should not be the first action without addressing the underlying cause of restlessness.

4. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?

• A. Cheddar cheese and crackers
• B. Carrot and celery sticks
• C. Beef bologna sausage slices
• D. Dry roasted almonds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry roasted almonds are the most suitable snack option for a client with chronic alcoholism and a decreased serum magnesium level because they are high in magnesium. Magnesium is essential in addressing the deficiency. Cheddar cheese and crackers (Choice A) do not contain as much magnesium as almonds. Carrot and celery sticks (Choice B) are healthy choices but do not provide a significant amount of magnesium. Beef bologna sausage slices (Choice C) are not a good choice as processed meats are not rich in magnesium.

5. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?

• A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
• B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
• C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.

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