HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
2. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?
- A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
- B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
- C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
- D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.
3. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
- B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
- C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
- D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.
4. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?
- A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
- B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
- C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
- D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.
5. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?
- A. Sodium iodide solution
- B. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.
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