HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?
- A. 12.5
- B. 5
- C. 10
- D. 20
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.
3. After a client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy and is found to have thrombocytopenia, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?
- A. Observe the aspiration site
- B. Assess body temperature
- C. Monitor skin elasticity
- D. Measure urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the aspiration site. Thrombocytopenia, characterized by a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring the biopsy site for bleeding or hematoma is crucial to ensure early detection and intervention. Assessing body temperature (choice B) is not directly related to the increased bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Monitoring skin elasticity (choice C) and measuring urinary output (choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where bleeding risk needs immediate attention.
4. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?
- A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
- B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
5. After undergoing an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery, a client is experiencing difficulty managing their diet. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?
- A. Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow
- B. Plan volume-controlled evenly spaced meals throughout the day
- C. Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals
- D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-forming foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thoroughly chewing food is crucial for clients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery to aid in digestion and prevent complications. Proper chewing helps break down food into smaller particles, making it easier for the digestive system to process. This instruction is essential to prevent issues such as food blockages or inadequate nutrient absorption. Choices B and C are also important for post-gastric bypass clients to maintain proper nutrition and hydration, but they are not as critical as ensuring thorough chewing. Choice D addresses dietary concerns but is not as immediately crucial as ensuring the client chews food properly to support digestion and prevent complications.
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