when caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome ards the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees what is the reason for thi
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

2. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

3. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Metformin does not require additional doses for hyperglycemia, and sliding scale insulin is not typically used with metformin. It is important for the client to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider, and take the medication with meals. Teaching the client to use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation is not appropriate in this case because metformin is the prescribed medication, and its mechanism of action differs from insulin therapy. The client should be educated on the importance of taking metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and to report any persistent polyuria, which could indicate poor blood sugar control.

4. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.

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