HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
2. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
- B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
- C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
- D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.
3. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
- B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
- C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
- D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.
4. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
- B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
- C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
- D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.
5. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral Wheezing
- B. Urticaria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.
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