Nursing Elites

1. A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Topical corticosteroid
• B. Topical scabicide
• C. Topical alcohol rub
• D. Transdermal analgesic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.

2. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing scotomas (blind spots), which are limiting peripheral vision. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the use of corrective lenses during the day
• B. Practice visual exercises that focus on a still object
• C. Alternate an eye patch from eye every 2 hours
• D. Teach techniques for scanning the environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with multiple sclerosis experiencing scotomas and limited peripheral vision is to teach techniques for scanning the environment. This intervention helps the client compensate for vision loss by learning how to scan and explore their surroundings effectively. Encouraging the use of corrective lenses may not address the issue of scotomas, and visual exercises focusing on a still object may not enhance peripheral vision. Alternating an eye patch every 2 hours is not typically indicated for scotomas in multiple sclerosis, making it an incorrect choice.

4. The nurse is teaching a class on child care to new parents. Which instruction should be included about the prevention of rotavirus infection in infants who are starting to eat foods?

• A. Keep house pets away from the food preparation area
• B. Avoid feeding infants fresh fruits
• C. Use only lactose-free formulas
• D. Wash hands before any food preparation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wash hands before any food preparation. Rotavirus is a highly contagious virus that can be prevented by maintaining proper hygiene. Washing hands before handling food can help prevent the spread of infections, including rotavirus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are good practices for general hygiene and infant care, they are not specifically targeted at preventing rotavirus infection.

5. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

• A. capillary glucose
• B. urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.

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