HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?
- A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
- B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
- C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
- D. CD4 blood cell count of 300
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.
2. A client with skin grafts covering full-thickness burns on both arms and legs is scheduled for a dressing change. The client is nervous and requests that the dressing change be skipped this time. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Explain the importance of regular dressing changes
- B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication
- C. Proceed with the scheduled dressing change
- D. Encourage the client to express any anxieties
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to take is to explain the importance of regular dressing changes to the client. By doing so, the nurse can help the client understand the necessity for wound healing and infection prevention. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the client's anxiety, which is the lack of understanding. Proceeding with the scheduled dressing change (Choice C) without addressing the client's concerns can worsen their anxiety and decrease trust. Encouraging the client to express any anxieties (Choice D) is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client comprehends the rationale behind the dressing change.
3. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
- B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
- C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
- D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.
4. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
- A. Ineffective airway clearance
- B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
- C. Fluid volume excess
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.
5. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?
- A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
- B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
- C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
- D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.
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