Nursing Elites

1. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

2. Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. All future children will be carriers, but will not necessarily have the disease
• B. There is a chance that each future child will have the disease
• C. Only male children cannot inherit the sickle cell disease trait
• D. Only one out of four of their children will definitely manifest the disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.

3. An older client is having photocoagulation for macular degeneration. What intervention should the nurse implement during post-procedure care in the outpatient surgical unit?

• A. Apply bilateral eye patches while sleeping
• B. Use a whiteboard to communicate with the client
• C. Arrange food on the plate in a clockwise order
• D. Verbally identify oneself when entering the room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to apply bilateral eye patches while sleeping. This measure helps protect the eyes and support healing following photocoagulation for macular degeneration. Choice B is incorrect as using a whiteboard is not directly related to post-procedure care for this intervention. Choice C is incorrect as arranging food on the plate in a clockwise order is not relevant to the post-procedure care of photocoagulation. Choice D is incorrect as verbally identifying oneself when entering the room is important for communication but not specific to the post-procedure care in this scenario.

4. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

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