HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus (DM). After receiving the instructions, the client expresses understanding about when, how, and why to take his prescribed medications at home. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Review the purpose of medications prescribed for the client to take home with him
- B. Provide the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration
- C. Send a list of medications taken while hospitalized to the client’s healthcare provider
- D. Offer to consult with the pharmacist about resources for reduced-price medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration is crucial to ensure adherence and understanding of the medication regimen at home. This intervention helps the client follow the prescribed treatment plan accurately. Choice A is not as essential since the client already understands when, how, and why to take the medications. Choice C is not a priority at this point as the client needs information for home medication management. Choice D, while helpful, is not the most important intervention compared to providing a clear list and schedule for medication administration.
2. What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
- B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
- C. Hypotension and tachycardia
- D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.
3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
4. Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
- A. Reduce risk factors for infection
- B. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep
- C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Diaphragmatic breathing is a beneficial intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve breathing efficiency and manage symptoms by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. It aids in achieving better exhalation, reducing air trapping, and enhancing overall lung function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While reducing risk factors for infection is important for overall health, it is not a specific long-term intervention for COPD. Administering high-flow oxygen during sleep may be necessary in some cases but is not typically a long-term strategy for managing COPD. Limiting fluid intake to reduce secretions is not recommended as hydration is essential for individuals with COPD to maintain optimal respiratory function and prevent complications like mucus plugs.
5. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
- B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
- C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
- D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
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