Nursing Elites

1. What nursing intervention is particularly indicated for the second stage of labor?

• A. Providing pain medication to increase the client’s tolerance of labor
• B. Assessing the fetal heart rate and pattern for signs of fetal distress
• C. Monitoring effects of oxytocin administration to help achieve cervical dilation
• D. Assisting the client to push effectively so that the expulsion of the fetus can be achieved

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, assisting the client to push effectively is crucial for the delivery of the fetus. This action helps to facilitate the expulsion of the fetus from the uterus. Providing pain medication (Choice A) is not typically done during the second stage of labor as the focus shifts to pushing and delivery. Assessing the fetal heart rate (Choice B) is important but is more relevant throughout labor, not specifically for the second stage. Monitoring the effects of oxytocin administration (Choice C) is more associated with the first stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and cervical dilation.

2. During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?

• A. A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• B. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields
• C. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration
• D. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.

3. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
• B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
• C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
• D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.

5. Why is it important to initiate nursing interventions that promote good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction for clients diagnosed with an HIV infection?

• A. Prevent the spread of infection to others
• B. Improve the function of the immune system
• C. Increase the ability to carry out activities of daily living
• D. Promote a feeling of general well-being

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Improve the function of the immune system.' Initiating interventions focusing on good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction aims to enhance the immune system function in clients with HIV infection. For individuals with HIV, maintaining a strong immune system is crucial in fighting the virus and preventing opportunistic infections. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care but are secondary to the primary goal of boosting the immune system to combat the effects of the HIV virus.

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