HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?
- A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
- B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
- C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
- D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
3. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?
- A. Urine specific gravity changing from 1.021 to 1.031
- B. Daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg)
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increasing from 8 to 12 mg/dl (2.9 to 4.3)
- D. Urinary output decreasing by 5 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.
4. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
- B. Assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
- D. Document assessment findings in the client’s medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
5. While teaching a young male adult to use an inhaler for his newly diagnosed asthma, the client stares into the distance and appears to be concentrating on something other than the lesson the nurse is presenting. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the client of the importance of using a rescue inhaler for asthma management
- B. Leave the client alone to process his thoughts about the inhaler
- C. Ask the client what he is thinking about at that moment
- D. Pause and inquire if the client has any questions or needs clarification
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to ask the client what he is thinking about at that moment. By doing so, the nurse can understand the client's concerns or distractions, which can then be addressed effectively during the teaching session. Option A is incorrect as it assumes the client is not paying attention due to forgetfulness about the importance of the inhaler, which may not be the case. Option B is incorrect because leaving the client alone without addressing the issue does not facilitate effective learning. Option D, although closer, does not directly address the client's distraction and may not uncover the underlying issue causing the lack of focus.
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