Nursing Elites

1. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

• A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
• B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
• C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
• D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

2. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

3. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
• B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
• C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
• D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.

4. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide blow-by oxygen
• B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
• C. Draw arterial blood gases
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

5. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?

• A. They are somewhat taller than average.
• B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
• C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
• D. They are typically impotent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.

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