according to a study in 2014 by skakkebaek et al who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia
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HESI Maternal Newborn

1. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

2. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.

3. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

4. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

5. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

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