Nursing Elites

1. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

2. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

3. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?

• A. Accelerations with fetal movement.
• B. Early decelerations.
• C. Average FHR of 126 beats per minute.
• D. Late decelerations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).

4. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
• B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
• C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
• D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.

5. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:

• A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
• B. fraternal twins.
• C. non-identical twins.
• D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.

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