HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?
- A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
- B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
- C. Warts on the affected ankle
- D. 2+ pitting edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.
2. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
- B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
- C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
- D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
4. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?
- A. Prone.
- B. Fowler's.
- C. Sims'.
- D. Supine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.
5. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.4
- B. Sodium 140
- C. Calcium 8.6
- D. Magnesium 2.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.
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