HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. Upon admission to the hospital, a client presents with decreased circulation in the left leg. What is the most important initial nursing action during the assessment?
- A. Assess the client's mobility
- B. Evaluate the pedal pulses
- C. Monitor skin temperature
- D. Check for swelling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is admitted with decreased circulation in the left leg, the most critical initial nursing action is to evaluate the pedal pulses. Pedal pulses provide essential information about the circulation status in the affected leg. Assessing the client's mobility (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as evaluating pedal pulses in this scenario. Monitoring skin temperature (Choice C) and checking for swelling (Choice D) are also relevant, but they are secondary to evaluating pedal pulses since the latter directly assesses the circulation in the affected limb.
2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurse. Which of the following is a nursing action?
- A. Firmly tell the client not to grab
- B. Redirect the client’s attention
- C. Use physical restraints
- D. Avoid contact with the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Redirecting the client's attention is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. When dealing with a confused client exhibiting grabbing behavior, redirection can help shift their focus to a more appropriate activity or object. Firmly telling the client not to grab may escalate the situation and create a confrontational environment, which is not recommended when caring for confused clients. The use of physical restraints should be a last resort and only implemented after all other strategies have been exhausted, as they can contribute to increased agitation and distress in older adults. Avoiding contact with the client is not a proactive approach to managing the behavior and may lead to feelings of neglect or abandonment in the client.
3. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance in time.
- B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.
- C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns.
- D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.
4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Vastus lateralis muscle
- C. Abdomen
- D. Inner forearm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.
5. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?
- A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
- B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
- C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
- D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.
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