HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to perform first?
- A. Implement airborne precautions.
- B. Obtain a sputum culture.
- C. Administer antituberculosis medications.
- D. Recommend a screening test for close contacts.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial priority when admitting a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis is to implement airborne precautions to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions include wearing a mask and placing the client in a negative pressure room. Obtaining a sputum culture is essential for confirming the diagnosis, but ensuring infection control measures come first to protect others. Administering antituberculosis medications is important but should be initiated after implementing necessary precautions. Recommending a screening test for close contacts is relevant but is a secondary concern compared to immediate infection control measures.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
3. When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should:
- A. Grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression
- B. Check skin elasticity on the back of the hand
- C. Press on the skin over the abdomen
- D. Measure skin turgor on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression. This method is reliable for evaluating hydration status as it is less influenced by age-related skin changes or adipose tissue. Choice B, checking skin elasticity on the back of the hand, is not the preferred method for assessing skin turgor. Choice C, pressing on the skin over the abdomen, is not a standard location for assessing skin turgor. Choice D, measuring skin turgor on the lower leg, is not a recommended site for assessing skin turgor in clinical practice.
4. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
5. The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?
- A. Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clock care.
- B. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken.
- C. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen.
- D. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.
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