Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to perform first?

• A. Implement airborne precautions.
• B. Obtain a sputum culture.
• C. Administer antituberculosis medications.
• D. Recommend a screening test for close contacts.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial priority when admitting a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis is to implement airborne precautions to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions include wearing a mask and placing the client in a negative pressure room. Obtaining a sputum culture is essential for confirming the diagnosis, but ensuring infection control measures come first to protect others. Administering antituberculosis medications is important but should be initiated after implementing necessary precautions. Recommending a screening test for close contacts is relevant but is a secondary concern compared to immediate infection control measures.

2. A client is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client who will have emergency surgery for appendicitis. Which of the following statements indicates a lack of readiness to learn by the client?

• A. The client reports severe pain
• B. The client asks for a demonstration
• C. The client inquires about potential complications
• D. The client agrees to the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because severe pain can hinder the client's ability to participate effectively in learning. Pain can be distracting and may prevent the client from focusing on acquiring new information or skills. Choice B is incorrect because asking for a demonstration shows an interest in learning and readiness to understand the exercises. Choice C is incorrect as inquiring about potential complications indicates the client's engagement in understanding the procedure and its outcomes, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choice D is incorrect as agreeing to the procedure does not necessarily reflect a lack of readiness to learn. The client may still be open to receiving information about postoperative care, indicating a level of readiness to learn despite agreeing to the surgery.

3. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?

• A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
• B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
• C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
• D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.

4. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?

• A. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
• B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
• C. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day.
• D. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The goal 'The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge' is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, achievable, and individualized. This goal sets a clear target for the patient's mobility progress post-surgery. Choice A is too vague and does not provide a specific target distance or method of ambulation. Choice C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the patient's progress. Choice D lacks specificity in terms of distance or assistance required, making it less measurable and individualized compared to Choice B.

5. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

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