Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
• B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
• C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
• D. Use a less painful dressing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

2. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Arterial pH of 7.20
• D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

3. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

4. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

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