Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Decreased calcium
• B. Elevated potassium
• C. Increased sodium
• D. Low hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.

2. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

3. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?

• A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
• B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
• C. The force opposing movement direction
• D. The ability to move freely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first when using the nursing process?

• A. Obtain client information
• B. Develop a plan of care
• C. Implement nursing interventions
• D. Evaluate the client's response to treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain client information. The first step in the nursing process is assessment, which involves gathering data about the client's condition, needs, and preferences. This information forms the foundation for developing a comprehensive plan of care. Developing a plan of care (Choice B) comes after assessment to address the identified needs. Implementing nursing interventions (Choice C) follows the development of the plan of care. Evaluating the client's response to treatment (Choice D) occurs after implementing the interventions to determine the effectiveness of the care provided. Therefore, the initial and priority step is to obtain client information through assessment.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

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