HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
2. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
4. A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Pallor
- C. Inspiratory crackles
- D. Heart murmur
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.
5. A client has a new prescription for a home oxygen concentrator. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and their family?
- A. Check the cord routinely for frays or tearing
- B. Use oxygen around open flames
- C. Store oxygen concentrator in a closet
- D. Wear synthetic clothing to prevent static electricity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client and their family to check the cord routinely for frays or tearing. This is crucial to ensure the safety and proper function of the oxygen concentrator. Choice B is incorrect because oxygen should never be used around open flames due to the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as oxygen cylinders or concentrators should not be stored in a closet due to ventilation and safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect because synthetic clothing can generate static electricity, which could pose a risk around oxygen equipment.
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