Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair, which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

• A. Bend at the waist
• B. Keep feet close together
• C. Use back muscles for lifting
• D. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to stand close to the cabinet when lifting it. This action keeps the object close to the nurse's center of gravity, reducing the risk of back strain. Bending at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of back injury as it puts strain on the lower back. Keeping feet close together (Choice B) does not provide a stable base of support for lifting a heavy object. Using back muscles for lifting (Choice C) is incorrect as it can lead to back strain and injury. Therefore, standing close to the cabinet when lifting it is the safest and most effective approach to prevent self-injury.

3. When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should:

• A. Grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression
• B. Check skin elasticity on the back of the hand
• C. Press on the skin over the abdomen
• D. Measure skin turgor on the lower leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression. This method is reliable for evaluating hydration status as it is less influenced by age-related skin changes or adipose tissue. Choice B, checking skin elasticity on the back of the hand, is not the preferred method for assessing skin turgor. Choice C, pressing on the skin over the abdomen, is not a standard location for assessing skin turgor. Choice D, measuring skin turgor on the lower leg, is not a recommended site for assessing skin turgor in clinical practice.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
• B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
• C. Ask the client to identify different scents
• D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.

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