Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

2. The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
• B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
• C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
• D. Include a family member in the teaching session

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 400 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 300 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.

4. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Measure the client's urine output.
• B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

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