Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?

• A. When do you usually bathe, in the morning or evening?
• B. Do you prefer a bath or a shower?
• C. At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?
• D. Are you able to help with your hygiene care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.

3. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

• A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
• B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
• D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

4. While assisting a client with a meal, the client suddenly grabs at their neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to:

• A. Ask the client if they are choking
• B. Perform abdominal thrusts
• C. Call for emergency help
• D. Check the client’s airway

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when a client suddenly grabs at their neck and appears frightened is to ask if they are choking. This allows the nurse to gather more information from the client directly. Performing abdominal thrusts (choice B) should only be done if the client is unable to speak, cough, or breathe. Calling for emergency help (choice C) should be done after assessing the situation and confirming choking. Checking the client's airway (choice D) is important but should come after confirming that the client is choking.

5. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

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