Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

2. When evaluating care of an immobilized patient, which action will the nurse take?

• A. Focus on whether the interdisciplinary team is satisfied with the care.
• B. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan.
• C. Involve primarily the patient's family and health care team to determine goal achievement.
• D. Use objective data solely in determining whether interventions have been successful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When evaluating the care of an immobilized patient, the nurse should focus on assessing outcomes and response to nursing care. By comparing the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes identified during planning, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This process allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because the satisfaction of the interdisciplinary team does not directly reflect the patient's outcomes and response to care. Choice C is incorrect as it mainly focuses on the involvement of the patient's family and healthcare team, which may not provide a holistic evaluation of the patient's care. Choice D is incorrect as relying solely on objective data may lead to overlooking important subjective aspects of the patient's response and outcomes, which are also crucial in evaluating care effectively.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?

• A. Collect at least 2 inches of formed stool.
• B. Wear sterile gloves while obtaining the specimen.
• C. Use a culturette for specimen collection.
• D. Record the date and time the stool was collected.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.

4. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.

5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Contact
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.

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