HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
- B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
- C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
- D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
2. A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse?
- A. A report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month
- B. A comment by the client 'I just can't sit still.'
- C. The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets
- D. A report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets, known as exophthalmos, requires quick intervention as it is a severe symptom of Graves' disease. Exophthalmos can indicate an acute condition and may lead to serious complications such as optic nerve damage or corneal ulceration. Weight loss, restlessness, and irritability are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism but do not pose immediate risks compared to the ocular complications associated with exophthalmos.
3. A client is evaluated by a nurse regarding the use of a sequential compression device. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the device's purpose?
- A. “This device will keep me from developing skin sores.”
- B. “This device will keep the blood circulating in my leg.”
- C. “This device will prevent my leg muscles from weakening.”
- D. “This device will maintain the health of my joints.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sequential compression devices are utilized to enhance circulation and prevent clot formation in the legs. Option A is incorrect because these devices are not primarily meant to prevent skin sores. Option C is incorrect because the devices do not directly address muscle weakness. Option D is incorrect as the main purpose of sequential compression devices is not related to joint health.
4. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?
- A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
- B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
- C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
- D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.
5. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
- A. Chocolate pudding.
- B. Graham crackers.
- C. Sugar-free gelatin.
- D. Apple slices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.
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