HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A home health nurse is discussing the dangers of carbon monoxide poisoning with a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Carbon monoxide does not have a distinct odor.
- B. Water heaters should be inspected every 5 years.
- C. The lungs are not damaged from carbon monoxide inhalation.
- D. Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.' Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas, so it does not have a distinct odor (Choice A). While regular inspection of appliances like water heaters is important for safety, it is not directly related to carbon monoxide poisoning (Choice B). Carbon monoxide primarily affects the cardiovascular system by binding with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen, rather than causing direct lung damage (Choice C). Understanding how carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin is crucial in recognizing the mechanism of poisoning and its potential consequences.
2. A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side and the client did this. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?
- A. Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side.
- B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
- C. Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
- D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate comment by the nurse is to affirm the correct technique while offering support and checking for any issues during the insertion.
3. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Increased serum glucose
- B. Decreased albumin
- C. Decreased potassium
- D. Increased sodium retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.
4. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access