HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. What action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent postoperative complications in a client who has undergone abdominal surgery?
- A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly.
- B. Assist the client in ambulating as soon as possible.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly is crucial in preventing postoperative complications after abdominal surgery. This action helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and improving air exchange in the lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Assisting the client in ambulating early is important for preventing issues like deep vein thrombosis but may not directly address respiratory concerns postoperatively. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can help with respiratory distress but is not as specific to preventing postoperative respiratory complications as using an incentive spirometer. While encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is generally beneficial for lung expansion, using an incentive spirometer is more effective and targeted in preventing atelectasis after abdominal surgery.
2. The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modifications. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. If I exercise at least twice weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
- B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
- C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
- D. My blood level of low-density lipoproteins needs to increase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Limiting intake of beef to 4 ounces per week is an effective dietary modification to manage high cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because the frequency and duration of exercise alone may not be sufficient to lower cholesterol significantly. Choice B is incorrect as proteins, including lean sources like poultry and fish, can be a part of a healthy diet. Choice D is incorrect as low-density lipoproteins, known as bad cholesterol, should be decreased, not increased, for heart health.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 400 mL/hr
- B. 200 mL/hr
- C. 300 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Cloudy urine
- B. Burning sensation during urination
- C. Foul-smelling urine
- D. Blood in the urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
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