Nursing Elites

1. What action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent postoperative complications in a client who has undergone abdominal surgery?

• A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly.
• B. Assist the client in ambulating as soon as possible.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly is crucial in preventing postoperative complications after abdominal surgery. This action helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and improving air exchange in the lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Assisting the client in ambulating early is important for preventing issues like deep vein thrombosis but may not directly address respiratory concerns postoperatively. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can help with respiratory distress but is not as specific to preventing postoperative respiratory complications as using an incentive spirometer. While encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is generally beneficial for lung expansion, using an incentive spirometer is more effective and targeted in preventing atelectasis after abdominal surgery.

2. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Overdue menses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large meals before bedtime.
• B. I will limit coffee consumption to the morning hours.
• C. I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.
• D. I will avoid spicy and acidic foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.

5. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not seeing the point of living anymore. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Recommend that the client seek spiritual guidance
• B. Request additional support from the client's family
• C. Tell the client that this is a normal response to grief
• D. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for suicidal ideation. Asking the client directly if she plans to harm herself is essential to determine the level of risk and ensure appropriate interventions are implemented. Recommending spiritual guidance (Choice A) may not address the immediate safety concerns related to suicidal ideation. Requesting additional support from the client's family (Choice B) is not as direct in addressing the client's safety. While stating that the client's response is a normal part of grief (Choice C) may provide validation, it does not address the potential risk of harm to the client.

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