HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?
- A. Cheese crackers
- B. Peanut butter sandwich
- C. Potato chips
- D. Vanilla cookies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.
2. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Morphine sulfate
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Promethazine (Phenergan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.
3. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
- A. Orient the client to their room.
- B. Conduct a client care conference.
- C. Review medical prescriptions.
- D. Develop a plan of care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
4. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
- A. Impaired balance
- B. Hemiplegia
- C. Muscle sprain
- D. Lower extremity paralysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
5. A nurse enters a client's room and finds her on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client fell out of bed. Which of the following statements should the nurse document?
- A. “Client found lying on the floor.”
- B. “Client fell out of bed and was found on the floor.”
- C. “Client experienced a fall from the bed.”
- D. “Client was discovered on the floor following a fall from the bed.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The documentation should be clear and precise, providing details about the context of the fall. Choice A is vague and does not specify the cause of the client being on the floor. Choice C is less specific and does not directly state that the client fell from the bed. Choice D is wordy and less direct compared to option B, which clearly states that the client fell out of bed and was found on the floor.
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