Nursing Elites

1. When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should the nurse use?

• A. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
• B. Suction continuously while inserting the catheter
• C. Suction intermittently while inserting the catheter
• D. Use a Yankauer suction device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, the nurse should apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This technique helps minimize mucosal damage and is considered best practice. Choice B, suctioning continuously while inserting the catheter, is incorrect as continuous suctioning can cause trauma to the airway. Choice C, suctioning intermittently while inserting the catheter, is also incorrect as it can increase the risk of hypoxia and mucosal damage. Choice D, using a Yankauer suction device, is not appropriate for nasotracheal suctioning as it is typically used for oral suctioning. Therefore, the correct technique is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter to ensure effective and safe suctioning.

2. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

3. A nurse reviews an immobilized patient's laboratory results and discovers hypercalcemia. Which condition will the nurse monitor for most closely in this patient?

• A. Hypostatic pneumonia
• B. Renal stones
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Thrombus formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal stones. Renal calculi are calcium stones that can form in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients, who have hypercalcemia, are at increased risk for developing renal stones. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of renal stones is crucial in this patient population. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although they are potential complications in immobilized patients, they are not directly associated with hypercalcemia and do not match the scenario described in the question.

4. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

5. A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the flow rate
• C. Change the IV site
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.

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