HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is preparing the teaching plan for a group of parents about risks to toddlers. The nurse plans to explain proper communication in the event of accidental poisoning. The nurse should plan to tell the parents to first state what substance was ingested and then what information should be the priority for the parents to communicate?
- A. The parents' name and telephone number
- B. The currency of the immunization and allergy history of the child
- C. The estimated time of the accidental poisoning and a confirmation that the parents will bring the containers of the ingested substance
- D. The affected child's age and weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the event of accidental poisoning, it is crucial to know the child's age and weight to determine the appropriate treatment. This information helps healthcare providers calculate the correct dosage of antidotes or medications needed based on the child's size and age. The child's age and weight play a significant role in managing accidental poisoning cases. Therefore, this information should be a priority for parents to communicate in such emergencies. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical as the child's age and weight when it comes to immediate treatment decisions for accidental poisoning.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
4. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
- B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
- C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
- D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.
5. A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.
- B. Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.
- C. Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.
- D. Use the abbreviation SC when indicating an injection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate. This is important to prevent confusion with morphine sulfate, which is abbreviated as MSO4. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential to maintain a space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure for clarity in medication documentation. Choice C is incorrect as the standard abbreviation for units is 'U' for international units, not for the dosage of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as the appropriate abbreviation for subcutaneous injection is 'SC,' not just 'SC.' Therefore, the nurse manager should emphasize using the full name of medications to avoid errors and ensure patient safety.
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