Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

2. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?

• A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while typing notes into the record
• B. The interview process is hindered by electronic documentation and may disrupt the flow of conversation
• C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
• D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is optional and not a legal obligation of the examining nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.

3. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. “Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed.”
• B. “Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom.”
• C. “Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy.”
• D. “Remove clocks from the client’s room.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity is an effective non-restraint intervention for managing confused clients. It helps reduce agitation, promotes circulation, and may decrease the need for restraints. Choice A is incorrect as using full-length side rails can potentially restrict a client's movement, which is counterproductive to avoiding restraints. Choice B, while emphasizing monitoring, does not directly address alternatives to restraint use. Choice D is also incorrect as removing clocks from the client's room does not directly address managing confusion and reducing the need for restraints.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess oral cavity.
• B. Assess room for drafts.
• C. Assess ankles for edema.
• D. Assess for reduced sensations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.

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