Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

2. When moving a patient up in bed using a drawsheet with the help of another nurse, in which order will the nurses perform the steps, starting with the first one?

• A. Grasp the drawsheet firmly near the patient.
• B. Move the patient and drawsheet to the desired position.
• C. Position one nurse at each side of the bed.
• D. Place the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When moving a patient up in bed with a drawsheet and the assistance of another nurse, it is important to have one nurse positioned at each side of the bed initially. This allows for proper coordination and support during the patient movement. Placing the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh, grasping the drawsheet firmly near the patient, and moving the patient and drawsheet to the desired position follow after the nurses are positioned on each side of the bed. The correct sequence ensures a safe and coordinated approach to repositioning the patient in bed.

3. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

4. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

5. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

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