Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

2. The patient refuses a morning bath, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.
• B. Tell the patient that daily morning baths are the 'normal' routine.
• C. Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.
• D. Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. By deferring the bath until evening, the nurse acknowledges and accommodates the patient's routine, promoting patient-centered care. Choice B could be seen as dismissive of the patient's preference and may not foster a therapeutic relationship. Choice C, while important, doesn't address the patient's current refusal. Choice D is not respectful of the patient's autonomy and could lead to increased resistance. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate and patient-centered approach.

3. A nurse is caring for an older, immobile patient whose condition requires a supine position. Which metabolic alteration will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Increased diarrhea
• C. Increased metabolic rate
• D. Increased pulse rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When an older, immobile patient is in a supine position, it increases cardiac workload, leading to an increased pulse rate. This is because the heart rate in older adults may not tolerate the additional workload. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an increased appetite, increased diarrhea, and increased metabolic rate are not directly associated with being immobile in a supine position. Increased appetite is more related to nutritional needs or certain medical conditions, increased diarrhea could be due to various causes, and an increased metabolic rate is not typically a direct consequence of lying supine.

4. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?

• A. Identify the client using two identifiers
• B. Confirm the client's fasting status
• C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
• D. Explain the procedure to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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