Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment for a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform deep palpation at the end of the admission assessment
• B. Auscultate the client’s abdomen before palpation
• C. Begin palpation of the abdomen at the site of pain
• D. Assess the client’s bowel sounds using the bell of the stethoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the abdomen before palpation is the correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario. This approach helps to assess bowel sounds accurately and prevents the alteration of bowel sounds that can occur due to palpation. By auscultating first, the nurse can gather important information about bowel function before proceeding with the palpation. Choice A is incorrect because deep palpation should be avoided initially, especially in a client reporting abdominal pain, as it may cause discomfort or potential harm. Choice C is incorrect as palpation should typically start away from the site of pain to prevent exacerbating discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because assessing bowel sounds with the bell of the stethoscope is not the initial step recommended when a client reports abdominal pain; auscultation should be performed with the diaphragm of the stethoscope first.

2. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Decreased calcium
• B. Elevated potassium
• C. Increased sodium
• D. Low hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.

4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

5. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

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