Nursing Elites

1. A client with a tracheostomy collar has a decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation during tracheal suctioning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Remove the inner cannula.
• C. Irrigate the stoma.
• D. Discontinue suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue suctioning. Suctioning should be stopped immediately to prevent further decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation. Elevating the head of the bed may help with oxygenation, but the priority is to stop the suctioning procedure. Removing the inner cannula or irrigating the stoma are not appropriate actions and could worsen the client's condition.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.

3. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

5. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

• A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
• B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
• D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

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