Nursing Elites

1. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?

• A. pH below 7.3
• B. Potassium of 5.0
• C. HCT of 60
• D. PaO2 of 79%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.

2. A client with iron-deficiency anemia asks a nurse why the Z-track method is necessary for administering iron dextran. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It decreases the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel.
• B. It delays medication absorption.
• C. It minimizes tissue irritation.
• D. It accelerates medication excretion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Z-track method is used to minimize tissue irritation by sealing the medication in the muscle. This technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of irritation and staining at the injection site. Option A about decreasing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel is not correct as the primary purpose of the Z-track method is to prevent tissue irritation. Option B stating it delays medication absorption is incorrect as the Z-track method does not affect the rate of medication absorption. Option D mentioning it accelerates medication excretion is incorrect as the Z-track method does not impact medication excretion but rather focuses on minimizing tissue irritation.

3. What is the most important aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery?

• A. Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
• B. Explanation of wound care technique
• C. Review of signs and symptoms of infection
• D. Instructions for when to contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery is the demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene. Proper hand hygiene is essential to prevent the introduction of infection during dressing changes. While wound care technique, signs and symptoms of infection, and instructions for contacting the healthcare provider are all important components of the discharge plan, ensuring the client understands and practices proper hand hygiene is paramount to minimize the risk of infection. This choice takes precedence as it directly addresses infection prevention during the dressing changes, which is crucial for successful post-operative recovery.

4. During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

• A. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water.
• B. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag with hot water every 24 hours.
• C. The client’s caregiver changes the feeding bag every 48 hours.
• D. The client’s caregiver adds water to the formula before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.

5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

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