Nursing Elites

1. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?

• A. pH below 7.3
• B. Potassium of 5.0
• C. HCT of 60
• D. PaO2 of 79%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.

2. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?

• A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
• B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
• C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
• D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.

3. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

4. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Assess the client for orthostatic hypotension
• B. Obtain a gait belt
• C. Ensure the client has proper footwear
• D. Ask the client to perform range-of-motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client for orthostatic hypotension is the priority before transferring a client who can bear weight on one leg. This assessment helps identify the risk of dizziness or fainting when the client moves from a supine to an upright position. Obtaining a gait belt may be necessary for the transfer, but assessing for orthostatic hypotension comes first to ensure the safety of the client. Ensuring the client has proper footwear is important for preventing falls during ambulation but is not the immediate next step in this situation. Asking the client to perform range-of-motion exercises is not necessary before the transfer and does not address the immediate safety concern of orthostatic hypotension.

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