Nursing Elites

1. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

• A. Apply antibiotic cream to Child B’s arm immediately
• B. Determine if Child A has a history of Hepatitis C or HIV
• C. Determine the date of Child B’s latest tetanus booster
• D. Wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
• B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
• C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
• D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.

3. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing’s sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.

4. When designing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, a goal statement should be prepared that relates to which topic?

• A. Psychological counseling to address emotional well-being
• B. Medication teaching concerning adrenergic blockers
• C. Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy
• D. Education on dietary modifications for hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy. Pheochromocytoma often requires adrenalectomy as part of the treatment plan. Therefore, educating the client about what to expect before and after the surgery is crucial for optimal care and outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on emotional well-being rather than the specific surgical intervention needed for pheochromocytoma. Choice B is unrelated as the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma is surgical rather than medication-based. Choice D, though related to managing hypertension, does not address the surgical aspect of treating pheochromocytoma.

5. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

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