Nursing Elites

1. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?

• A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
• B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.

2. The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Assess for signs of lymphedema
• B. Encourage the client to perform arm exercises
• C. Provide pain relief through medication
• D. Recommend wearing a compression sleeve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.

3. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
• B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
• D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.

4. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

5. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

• A. Signs a no-self-harm contract
• B. Sleep for at least 6 hours nightly
• C. Attends group therapy every day
• D. Verbalizes a positive self-image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

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