Nursing Elites

1. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?

• A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
• B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.

2. A client with leukemia who is receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of activity intolerance
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks
• C. Assess urine and stool for occult blood
• D. Obtain client’s temperature q4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess urine and stool for occult blood. With a low platelet count, there is an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for occult blood is essential to detect any signs of internal bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions in this situation. While monitoring for signs of activity intolerance, requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks, and obtaining the client's temperature are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as assessing for occult blood in a client with a low platelet count.

3. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

• A. Ask the most experienced UAP on the team to partner with the newly hired UAP.
• B. Evaluate the newly hired UAP’s level of competency by observing the UAP deliver care.
• C. Review the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the person who hired the UAP.
• D. Assign the newly hired UAP to clients who require the least complex level of care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

4. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

• A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
• B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
• C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
• D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

5. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

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