HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
- B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
- C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
- D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.
2. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?
- A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
- B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
- C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
- D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.
3. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
- B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
- C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
- D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.
4. After a client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy and is found to have thrombocytopenia, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?
- A. Observe the aspiration site
- B. Assess body temperature
- C. Monitor skin elasticity
- D. Measure urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the aspiration site. Thrombocytopenia, characterized by a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring the biopsy site for bleeding or hematoma is crucial to ensure early detection and intervention. Assessing body temperature (choice B) is not directly related to the increased bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Monitoring skin elasticity (choice C) and measuring urinary output (choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where bleeding risk needs immediate attention.
5. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. obtain a serum potassium level
- B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
- C. assess pupillary response to light
- D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access