HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. In the Emergency Department, a female client discloses that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
- A. Does she know the person who raped her?
- B. Has she taken a bath since the rape occurred?
- C. Is the place where she lives a safe place?
- D. Did she report the rape to the police department?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask in this situation is whether the client knows the person who raped her. This question is crucial for assessing additional safety concerns, providing appropriate support, and determining the need for forensic evidence collection. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment and response to a rape victim. Asking about bathing, the safety of her home, or reporting to the police may be important but are secondary to identifying the perpetrator for safety and legal reasons.
2. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
- B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
- C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
- D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.
3. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
- B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
- C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
- D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.
4. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
5. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
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