HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase the intake of salty foods
- B. Administer NaCl supplements
- C. Restrict oral fluid intake
- D. Hold the client's loop diuretic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.
2. A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)
- A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
- B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
- C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
- D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.
3. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- D. Atenolol (Tenormin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
4. A male client with hypercholesterolemia wants to change his diet to help reduce his cholesterol levels. Which breakfast items should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply)
- A. Sausage patties and eggs
- B. Whole wheat toast and jam
- C. Bagels and cream cheese
- D. Blackberries and oatmeal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct choices are whole wheat toast and jam (B) and blackberries and oatmeal (D). Whole wheat toast and blackberries are high in fiber, which can help lower cholesterol levels. Sausage patties and eggs (A) are high in saturated fats that can raise cholesterol levels. Bagels and cream cheese (C) are not as beneficial for cholesterol control compared to high-fiber options like whole wheat toast and blackberries.
5. A young adult female presents at the emergency center with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Pain scale rating of 9 on a 0-10 scale
- B. Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago
- C. Reports white curdy vaginal discharge
- D. History of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A missed menstrual period could indicate a possible pregnancy-related issue, requiring urgent evaluation. Assessing the menstrual history in a female of reproductive age takes precedence in this scenario. Choice A, the pain scale rating, is important but not as urgent as evaluating the menstrual history. Choice C, reporting white curdy vaginal discharge, may suggest a vaginal infection but is not as critical as ruling out a potential pregnancy. Choice D, the history of irritable bowel syndrome, is relevant but not as crucial as determining pregnancy-related issues in this context.
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