Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
• B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
• C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
• D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.

2. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

3. A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Follow the prompts of the AED
• B. Apply the AED pads to the client’s chest
• C. Wipe the client’s chest dry
• D. Move the client from the bathroom

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.

4. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Nausea
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

5. A college student brings a dorm roommate to the campus clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The client tells the nurse that her voices are saying, “Kill, Kill.” What question should the nurse ask the client next?

• A. When did these voices begin?
• B. Are you planning to obey the voices?
• C. Have you taken any hallucinogens?
• D. Do you believe the voices are real?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing whether the client has a plan to act on the voices is critical for evaluating the risk of harm. Asking if the client is planning to obey the voices helps determine the immediate safety concerns. While understanding when the voices began could provide insight into the situation, assessing the intent to act on them is more urgent. Asking about hallucinogen use may be relevant but does not address the immediate safety issue. Inquiring about the client's belief in the reality of the voices is important but does not address the immediate risk of harm.

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