Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
• B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
• C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
• D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.

2. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

• A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
• B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
• C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
• D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.

3. A client with skin grafts covering full-thickness burns on both arms and legs is scheduled for a dressing change. The client is nervous and requests that the dressing change be skipped this time. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Explain the importance of regular dressing changes
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication
• C. Proceed with the scheduled dressing change
• D. Encourage the client to express any anxieties

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to take is to explain the importance of regular dressing changes to the client. By doing so, the nurse can help the client understand the necessity for wound healing and infection prevention. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the client's anxiety, which is the lack of understanding. Proceeding with the scheduled dressing change (Choice C) without addressing the client's concerns can worsen their anxiety and decrease trust. Encouraging the client to express any anxieties (Choice D) is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client comprehends the rationale behind the dressing change.

4. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

5. For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, “Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing.” Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client’s respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.

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