an iv antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection the medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses what schedule is be
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HESI CAT Exam Test Bank

1. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

2. The nurse is teaching a class on child care to new parents. Which instruction should be included about the prevention of rotavirus infection in infants who are starting to eat foods?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wash hands before any food preparation. Rotavirus is a highly contagious virus that can be prevented by maintaining proper hygiene. Washing hands before handling food can help prevent the spread of infections, including rotavirus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are good practices for general hygiene and infant care, they are not specifically targeted at preventing rotavirus infection.

3. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review of recent laboratory test results shows that the client’s serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the rhythm on the telemetry monitor. Decreased magnesium levels can lead to cardiac issues, such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm is crucial in this situation. Checking visual difficulties (choice A) is not directly related to the potential cardiac effects of low magnesium levels. Noting the hemoglobin level (choice B) and assessing for hand and joint pain (choice C) are not the priority when dealing with low magnesium levels and possible cardiac complications.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

5. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

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