HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
- B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
- C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.
2. Which of the following statements is a symptom of cystic fibrosis in children?
- A. Cystic fibrosis leads to uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes.
- B. Cystic fibrosis leads to the excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs.
- C. Cystic fibrosis causes red blood cells to clump together, obstructing small blood vessels and decreasing the oxygen supply.
- D. Cystic fibrosis causes the central nervous system to degenerate, resulting in death.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus. This mucus can clog the airways in the lungs and obstruct the pancreas, leading to severe respiratory and digestive problems. Choice A is incorrect because uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes are not typical symptoms of cystic fibrosis. Choice C is incorrect because cystic fibrosis does not directly cause red blood cells to clump together and obstruct small blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect because cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not the central nervous system.
3. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Cystic fibrosis
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.
4. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
- B. Call the healthcare provider.
- C. Encourage the client to void.
- D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.
5. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
- A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
- B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
- C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
- D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
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