HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
- B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
- C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.
2. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”
- B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”
- C. “You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”
- D. “You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.
3. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
- A. rod-shaped
- B. circular
- C. cone-shaped
- D. octagonal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.
4. A newborn nursery protocol includes a prescription for ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment to both eyes upon a newborn's admission. What action should the nurse take to ensure adequate installation of the ointment?
- A. Instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac
- B. Occlude the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids
- C. Mummy wrap the infant before instilling the ointment
- D. Stabilize the instilling hand on the neonate's head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To ensure adequate installation of the ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment in a newborn, the nurse should instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac. This method helps to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness of the medication to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Occluding the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids, mummy wrapping the infant, or stabilizing the instilling hand on the neonate's head are not appropriate actions for ensuring the proper installation of the ointment.
5. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
- A. Group B strep culture
- B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
- C. Rubella titer
- D. Blood type and Rh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.
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