Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
• B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
• C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.

2. _______ is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Hemophilia
• C. Lymphoma
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in blood clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, not blood clotting. Lymphoma is a type of cancer originating in the lymphatic system and is not related to blood clotting abnormalities. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects a person's ability to move, think, and behave.

3. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?

• A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
• B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
• C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
• D. Administer the vitamin K injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.

4. A prenatal educator is teaching a class about false labor. Which of the following information should the educator include?

• A. Contractions will become more intense with walking
• B. There will be dilation and effacement of the cervix
• C. There will be bloody show
• D. Contractions will become temporarily regular

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. False labor contractions, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, are typically irregular and do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. They are often described as sporadic and temporary, becoming temporarily regular. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because false labor contractions do not intensify with activity, do not cause cervical changes like dilation and effacement, and are not associated with the presence of a bloody show.

5. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

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