HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
- B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
- C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.
2. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:
- A. This is a test to see if your stress level is affecting your baby’s growth and well-being.
- B. This is a test to see if your baby will be able to withstand the stress of labor.
- C. This is a test to assess your baby’s well-being now that you are due to deliver soon.
- D. This is a test to let us know if your baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.
3. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
4. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:
- A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
- B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
- C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
- D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.
5. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
- A. rod-shaped
- B. circular
- C. cone-shaped
- D. octagonal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.
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