a nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients for which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider
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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.

2. The nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize. Which is the priority nursing action to implement when the client is admitted to the labor and delivery suite?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client with ruptured membranes is admitted to the labor and delivery suite is to take the client's temperature. This is crucial to assess for infection, especially when the duration of membrane rupture is unknown. Beginning a pad count, preparing to start an IV, and monitoring amniotic fluid for meconium are important actions but are not as immediate or critical as assessing for infection through temperature measurement.

3. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

4. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.

5. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

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