Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?

• A. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 in an individual.
• B. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle-cell anemia.
• C. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception.
• D. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

3. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?

• A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
• B. Lubricate the eyes.
• C. Prevent the development of infection.
• D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.

4. What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?

• A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
• B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
• C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
• D. Assisting her to maintain control

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.

5. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

• A. an XYY male.
• B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
• C. an XXY male.
• D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

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