Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

2. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

3. What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?

• A. Administer oxygen by mouth at 2L/min
• B. Gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source
• C. Notify the pediatrician of the infant's vital signs
• D. Perform a heel-stick to maintain blood glucose levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.

4. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

5. When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their natural parents in a trait, it can be concluded that:

• A. the genetic characteristics of the children change over time.
• B. heredity is solely responsible for how a child grows.
• C. the environment is solely responsible for the development of those characteristics.
• D. genetics play a role in the development of those characteristics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When children exhibit traits that are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents, it indicates a strong genetic influence on those traits. This similarity suggests that genetics play a significant role in the development of the observed characteristics. Choice A is incorrect because genetic characteristics do not change over time in this context. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that heredity is the only factor, disregarding the impact of the environment. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that only the environment influences trait development, overlooking the genetic contribution.

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