HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Your stomach will empty rapidly
- B. You should expect your uterus to double in size
- C. You should anticipate nasal stuffiness
- D. Your nipples will become lighter in color
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.
2. The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound, 10-ounce (3220-gram) infant. Which information should the nurse provide to the client about these findings?
- A. The uterus should be firm to prevent an intrauterine infection.
- B. Both the lower uterine segment and the fundus must be massaged.
- C. A firm uterus prevents the endometrial lining from being sloughed.
- D. Clots may form inside a boggy uterus and need to be expelled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, a boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, which can lead to the formation of clots. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and expel clots, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the main concern with a boggy uterus is the risk of clot formation and postpartum hemorrhage, not solely preventing intrauterine infection, massaging the lower uterine segment, or preventing the endometrial lining from sloughing.
3. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
4. A new parent is receiving discharge teaching about car seat safety from a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45-degree angle in the car.”
- B. “I should place the car seat rear-facing until my baby is 12 months old.”
- C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s shoulders.”
- D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positioning the car seat at a 45-degree angle is crucial to prevent the baby's head from falling forward, which can obstruct the airway. Choice B is incorrect because the recommendation is to keep the car seat rear-facing until the baby reaches the height or weight limit set by the car seat manufacturer, typically beyond 12 months. Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be snugly placed at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice D is incorrect as the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.
5. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?
- A. Accelerations with fetal movement.
- B. Early decelerations.
- C. Average FHR of 126 beats per minute.
- D. Late decelerations.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).
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