HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
2. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
- B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
- C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
- D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.
3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
- B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
- C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
- D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?
- A. You need to come in for regular blood tests.
- B. This medication can cause weight loss.
- C. You can stop taking this medication once you feel better.
- D. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.
5. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who is constantly washing her hands?
- A. Allow the client to continue washing her hands.
- B. Set limits on the time spent washing her hands.
- C. Encourage the client to wash her hands less frequently.
- D. Assist the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who is constantly washing her hands. This approach helps address the underlying cause of the compulsive behavior by focusing on reducing anxiety rather than reinforcing the behavior. Allowing the client to continue washing her hands (choice A) would not address the root of the issue and may perpetuate the behavior. Setting limits on the time spent washing hands (choice B) may cause distress to the client and does not address the core problem. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (choice C) does not provide effective coping strategies for managing anxiety associated with OCD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access