Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?

• A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
• B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
• C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
• D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.

3. The nurse suspects child abuse when assessing a 3-year-old boy and noticing several small, round burns on his legs and trunk that might be the result of cigarette burns. Which parental behavior provides the greatest validation for such suspicions?

• A. The parents' explanation of how the burns occurred is different from the child's explanation of how they occurred.
• B. The parents seem to dismiss the severity of the child's burns, saying they are very small and have not posed any problem.
• C. The parents become very anxious when the nurse suggests that the child may need to be admitted for further evaluation.
• D. The parents tell the nurse that the child was burned in a house fire which is incompatible with the nurse's observation of the type of burn.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides the most validation for suspecting child abuse. The parent's explanation (subjective data) that the child was burned in a house fire is incompatible with the objective data observed by the nurse (small, round burns on the legs and trunk). (A) relies on subjective data, and the child's explanation might not accurately reflect the situation due to various factors like age or fear. The apparent lack of concern from the parents (B) is inconclusive as the nurse's interpretation of their reaction could be subjective. While parental anxiety (C) could hint at potential child abuse, it's important to note that most parents would naturally be anxious about their child's hospitalization, making it a less definitive indicator compared to the inconsistency in the explanation provided by the parents in option (D).

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
• B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
• C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
• D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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