a nurse is assessing a client with schizophrenia who is receiving haloperidol haldol the client has a stiff mask like facial expression and difficulty
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

2. The nurse asks a female client with borderline personality disorder, 'How do you feel about your children not coming to visit this weekend?' The client looks out the window and replies, 'I really don't care.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's non-verbal behavior, such as looking out the window, demonstrates active listening and provides the client with an opportunity to explore their feelings further. Choice B is incorrect as it accuses the client of lying without any evidence, which can damage the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's feelings and suggests a group discussion without addressing the client's emotions directly. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on the children's actions rather than the client's feelings, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

4. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.

5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

Similar Questions

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