Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

2. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
• B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
• C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
• D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.

3. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Permit rest periods as needed.
• B. Speaking slowly and simply.
• C. Place the client on suicide precautions.
• D. Allow the client extra time to complete tasks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Place the client on suicide precautions.' When caring for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, it is crucial to permit rest periods as needed, speak slowly and simply, and allow the client extra time to complete tasks. These interventions help in promoting the client's comfort and well-being. Placing the client on suicide precautions may not always be necessary and should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's risk of self-harm. Therefore, it is the intervention that does not universally apply to all clients in this situation.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
• B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
• C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
• D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.

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