Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

2. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?

• A. Visual hallucinations
• B. Violent behavior
• C. Bizarre behavior
• D. Loud screaming

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.

3. Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. High risk for social isolation.
• B. Altered parenting.
• C. Ineffective individual coping.
• D. High risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.

4. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

• A. Tell me what you think should happen.
• B. How serious was the collision?
• C. What do you think you should do?
• D. Call for transportation to the hospital.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.

5. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

• A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
• B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
• C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
• D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

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