Nursing Elites

1. A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
• B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
• C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
• D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.

2. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
• B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.

3. An older female adult who lives in a nursing home is loudly demanding that the nurse call her son who has been deceased for five years. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client in making the phone call.
• B. Remind the client about her son's passing.
• C. Escort the client to a private area.
• D. Direct the client to a new activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate intervention is to direct the client to a new activity. This approach can help redirect the client's attention, distract her from the distressing request, and engage her in a more positive interaction. Choice A could exacerbate the client's distress by attempting to make the impossible call, and reminding the client about her son's passing (Choice B) may increase her emotional distress. Escorting the client to a private area (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue and may not effectively manage the situation.

4. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

• A. Self-Actualization.
• B. Loving and Belonging.
• C. Basic Needs.
• D. Safety and Security.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's development stages, characterized by the desire to fulfill one's full potential and achieve personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager's statement indicates a need for personal fulfillment and reaching his highest aspirations, aligning with the concept of self-actualization. Choice B, Loving and Belonging, refers to the need for social relationships and support systems. Choice C, Basic Needs, represents the foundation level of Maslow's hierarchy, encompassing physiological needs like food and shelter. Choice D, Safety and Security, pertains to the need for physical and emotional safety.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

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