HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
- B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
- C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
- D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Tremors
- C. Polyuria
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
3. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
4. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Excessive work activity.
- B. Decreased need for sleep.
- C. Medication management.
- D. Inflated self-esteem.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.
5. Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. High risk for social isolation.
- B. Altered parenting.
- C. Ineffective individual coping.
- D. High risk for injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.
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