Nursing Elites

1. A male client with diabetes mellitus is transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following treatment for a stroke resulting in right hemiplegia. He tells the nurse that his feet are always uncomfortably cool at night, preventing him from falling asleep. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a warming pad for his feet
• B. Medicate the client with a prescribed sedative.
• C. Use a bed cradle to keep the covers off his feet.
• D. Place warm blankets next to the client's feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing warm blankets next to the client's feet is the most appropriate action to provide warmth and comfort. This method is safe and effective in addressing the client's complaint of uncomfortably cool feet at night. Providing a warming pad (Choice A) may pose a risk of burns or injury, especially for a client with decreased sensation due to diabetes. Mediating the client with a sedative (Choice B) does not address the underlying issue of cool feet and may not be necessary. Using a bed cradle (Choice C) to hold the covers off the feet does not directly address the client's need for warmth and comfort.

2. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
• B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.

3. How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?

• A. They involve antigen-antibody complexes.
• B. They are mediated by T cells and do not involve antibodies.
• C. They result in immediate allergic reactions.
• D. They are the least severe form of hypersensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.

4. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

5. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?

• A. What time he took his medication?
• B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
• C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
• D. How many hours he slept last night?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.

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