HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. What is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease?
- A. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases
- B. Excessive peristaltic movement
- C. The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon
- D. One portion of the bowel telescoping into another
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease. This absence leads to the inability of the affected segment of the colon to relax, causing a functional obstruction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases, excessive peristaltic movement, and one portion of the bowel telescoping into another are not causative factors of Hirschsprung disease.
2. While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client’s hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment.
- B. Monitor the lesions for changes.
- C. Advise the client to use sunscreen.
- D. Refer the client for a skin lesion biopsy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.
3. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
- A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
- B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
- C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
- D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.
4. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
- A. Every 2 months
- B. Every 4 months
- C. Every 6 months
- D. Every 8 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.
5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
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