Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Magnesium sulfate
• D. Sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.

2. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Explain the risks of smoking with asthma.
• B. Revise the plan of care.
• C. Encourage the client to reduce smoking gradually.
• D. Provide resources for smoking cessation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.

3. The nurse is triaging clients who have been injured during a tornado. Which client requires immediate action?

• A. A young male with a minor laceration on his forearm.
• B. An elderly woman with a dislocated shoulder who is calm.
• C. A middle-aged female with a broken humerus who is unable to follow commands and is crying.
• D. A teenager with abrasions and a bruised knee.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The middle-aged female with a broken humerus who is unable to follow commands and is crying requires immediate action. These symptoms indicate a possible head injury or severe emotional distress that need urgent attention. Choice A is not as urgent since a minor laceration can be addressed after more critical cases. Choice B, although having a dislocated shoulder, is stable, as the client is calm. Choice D presents with minor injuries that can wait while more critical cases are addressed.

4. While planning care for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse identifies a collaborative problem of pain. What is the etiology of this problem?

• A. Irritation of nerve endings
• B. Diminished blood flow
• C. Ischemic tissue changes
• D. Compression of a nerve

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compression of a nerve. In carpal tunnel syndrome, pain arises from the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel. This compression leads to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because carpal tunnel syndrome pain is primarily caused by the physical compression of the nerve, rather than irritation of nerve endings, diminished blood flow, or ischemic tissue changes.

5. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?

• A. Straw
• B. Spoon
• C. Syringe
• D. Cup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.

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