HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Potassium chloride
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Magnesium sulfate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.
2. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube due to hemothorax?
- A. Keep the arm and shoulder of the affected side immobile at all times.
- B. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough at frequent intervals.
- C. Maintain the pleura vac slightly above the chest level.
- D. Ensure there is no fluctuation in the water seal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is vital for a client with a chest tube due to hemothorax as it helps prevent atelectasis and promotes lung expansion. Keeping the arm and shoulder immobile (Choice A) is not necessary for chest tube management. Maintaining the pleura vac slightly above the chest level (Choice C) is incorrect as the pleura vac should be kept below the chest level to facilitate drainage. Ensuring no fluctuation in the water seal (Choice D) is important, but it is not the priority intervention when compared to promoting lung expansion through deep breathing and coughing.
3. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?
- A. Move to the client's other side.
- B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
- C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
- D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Elevated serum amylase
- B. Decreased serum bilirubin
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
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