Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

3. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
• B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
• C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
• D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.

4. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

5. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s respiratory acidosis?

• A. Low oxygen levels are present in the blood.
• B. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
• C. Increased bicarbonate levels are causing alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory rate is increased, causing hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood lead to respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. The correct answer is B. In respiratory acidosis, the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood occurs due to inadequate exhalation, leading to acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as low oxygen levels are related to hypoxemia, not respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as increased bicarbonate levels would lead to alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate causing hyperventilation would actually help decrease carbon dioxide levels, not lead to respiratory acidosis.

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