Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

2. A client who had surgery yesterday is becoming increasingly anxious. The client’s respiratory rate has increased to 38 breaths/minute. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction with 500 ml of yellow-green drainage over the last four hours. The client's arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate a decreased CO2 and an increased serum pH. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Electrolytes.
• B. Creatinine.
• C. Blood urea nitrogen.
• D. Glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Electrolytes. In this scenario, the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric secretions through the nasogastric tube. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. Changes in these electrolyte levels can provide valuable information about the client's fluid status and acid-base balance. Creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in different situations but are not the priority in this case of potential metabolic alkalosis.

3. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

4. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

5. The nurse assesses an adult male client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds that his blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg, he is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• B. Ensure that the IV is infusing at the prescribed rate.
• C. Listen to lung sounds.
• D. Check under his back for evidence of bleeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first check under the client for evidence of bleeding. A blood pressure of 98/40 mm Hg, along with tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability, could indicate internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. Checking for bleeding under the back is crucial to rule out this life-threatening complication. Notifying the healthcare provider, ensuring IV infusion, or listening to lung sounds can be important but are secondary to ruling out immediate life-threatening conditions like internal bleeding.

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