Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

2. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

3. The nurse is caring for a child who has been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What is the most important intervention for the nurse?

• A. Help the child enroll in a special education class.
• B. Allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have.
• C. Explain to the parents that medications are lifelong.
• D. Teach the parents how to set limits.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse in caring for a child with ADHD is to allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have. Parents of children with ADHD often experience guilt or self-blame, thinking they are responsible for their child's condition. By addressing and alleviating these feelings, the nurse can support the parents in a crucial way. Choice A is not the most important intervention because enrolling the child in a special education class might be a consideration but does not address the emotional needs of the parents. Choice C is incorrect because stating that medications are lifelong may cause unnecessary distress to the parents. Choice D is also not the most important intervention as setting limits is important but not as critical as addressing parental guilt and emotions.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50 ml/hour.
• B. 75 ml/hour.
• C. 100 ml/hour.
• D. 125 ml/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.

5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

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