Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

2. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• D. Assess the client's core temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50 ml/hour.
• B. 75 ml/hour.
• C. 100 ml/hour.
• D. 125 ml/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.

5. During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate for abdominal distention
• B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
• C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
• D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.

Similar Questions